Re: why do we need utf8 normalization when compare name?

[lampahome]

> Sorry, a better example would've been "Ã" (U+00F1). You can also
> represent it as "n" (U+006E) followed by "âÌ" (U+0303 -- "combining
> tilde"). Both forms are defined by Unicode to be canonically equivalent
> so it would be incorrect to treat the two Unicode strings differently
> (that isn't quite the case for "Ã").

So utf8-normalize will convert  "Ã" (U+00F1) and "n" (U+006E) followed
by "âÌ" to a utf8 code, and both are the same, right?
Then compare it byte by byte.