Re: [RFC][PATCH 1/2] x86: Allow breakpoints to emulate call functions

From: Linus Torvalds
Date: Mon May 06 2019 - 15:54:17 EST

On Mon, May 6, 2019 at 11:57 AM Steven Rostedt <rostedt@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> You should have waited another week to open that merge window ;-)

Hmm. I'm looking at it while the test builds happen, and since I don't
see what's wrong in the low-level entry code, I'm looking at the
ftrace code instead.

What's going on here?

*pregs = int3_emulate_call(regs, (unsigned

that line makes no sense. Why would we emulate a call to
ftrace_regs_caller()? That function sets up a pt_regs, and then calls

But we *have* pt_regs here already with the right values. Why isn't
this just a direct call to ftrace_stub() from within the int3 handler?

And the thing is, calling ftrace_regs_caller() looks wrong, because
that's not what happens for *real* mcount handling, which uses that
"create_trampoline()" to create the thing we're supposed to really

Anyway, I simply don't understand the code, so I'm confused. But why
is the int3 emulation creating a call that doesn't seem to match what
the instruction that we're actually rewriting is supposed to do?

IOW, it looks to me like ftrace_int3_handler() is actually emulating
something different than what ftrace_modify_code() is actually
modifying the code to do!

Since the only caller of ftrace_modify_code() is update_ftrace_func(),
why is that function not just saving the target and we'd emulate the
call to that? Using anything else looks crazy?

But as mentioned, I just don't understand the ftrace logic. It looks
insane to me, and much more likely to be buggy than the very simple
entry code.