That argument seems correct under the assumption that the variable
is normally distributed .. i.e. I think you'd get a wildly varying
absolute result from a mimimum of a number of tests from a normal
curve. Not that I thought about that for more than five secs ..
If the variable is not normally distributed, but from something like
x^n * exp(-nx) instead, then the minimum would tend to zero with certainty.
I.e. you'd be sure to really get the minimum in the end. In fact,
that's obviously true in general, no matter what the distribution. So
again, looks like Larry is wrong there. Coincidence twice!
Peter
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